Can anyone suggest a primary reference on the difference between integral and incidental affect. I know the distinction has been around for a while but am wondering where it was first made?
thanks for your help
Mark Fenton-O'Creevy
Professor of Organisational Behaviour
Open University Business School
Walton Hall
Milton Keynes MK7 6AA
United Kingdom
e-mail: m.p.fenton-ocreevy@open.ac.uk
(DL) +44 (0)1908-655804
Mobile +44 (0) 7977 576721
Fax: +44 (0)1908-655898
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